- Monday, September 16 2013, 4:19:49 (UTC)|
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...just listened to a small talk on youtube in which he claims that in the 8th century BC the Assyrians dropped the initial "A" from their name....huh? He doesn't say why or how this came to be, just says it and moves on...the rest of his talk is about how Syrians, in Syria, are also descended from the ancients...this is incredibly sloppy...at the very least he should give the evidence for this claim....I remember Dr Joseph having a good laugh at this, but can't remember where he's written about it.
...he says that Syria was conquered by Assyria and became part of the Assyrian Empire...okay. But how does that make the people living in Syria, then and now, Assyrians?
...for some 200 years there was a New England in America....it was part of the British Empire....did that make Englishmen out of Mohawk Natives...or French people living there?
...I think Parpola and Khan and other professors, who all get funds and strokes from the assyrian community, tailor their comments to ingratiate themselves...after all, who besides Joseph knows enough, or cares enough, to point out their fallacies? We certainly aren't going to do it.
All of these types accept the existence of modern assyrians as fact....without ever asking how it could be...very sloppy for a scholar....and they all assume that the Aramaic we speak is also the "Assyrian language"....why? When and how did it become an Assyrian language?
We've learned how to speak English, is English now also an "Assyrian" language? Why, because so-called assyrians speak it? Will French become an Assyrian language too if enough of us switch to it?
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